All critics of the Quran answer this if you can? How did the Quran predict the Defeat of Persian Emp

Not one historian can deny this check and you will see?

In 615 AD, Khusru Parviz of Persia attacked Byzantium (Roman) empire and gained control of Syria, Palestine and North Africa. He ransacked Jerusalem, set fire to the Holy Sepulcher and destroyed numerous cities. The war ended in clear victory for fire-worshippers of Persia.

News of the defeat of Byzantine worshippers of God was received with satisfaction by the idolaters of Mecca. This was grievous to the Muslims and caused them much anxiety about the future course of the events. It was then that a revelation came foretelling the renewed triumph of the Byzantine over the Persians within few years.

These are the relevant verses of Surat Ruum in the Quran: 鈥淭he Romans have been defeated in a land nearby. But in the future they will triumph over their enemies, within a period of few years. All affairs, both earlier and later, are in the hands of God. And on the day when the Romans triumph, the believers and the followers of Islam will rejoice. God assists to whomsoever He wills, and He is Powerful and Compassionate. This is the promise of God, a promise which can not be violated, but most of the people know not鈥? (30:1-6).

Within less than 10 years, this Prophecy of the Quran was fulfilled in the year 624 A.D. corresponding to year 2 A.H. How can we explain the confident and categorical prediction of the victory of a defeated people over a victorious people, in the absence of any factors pointing to the likelihood of such an event? A realistic approach to the state of society and the course of events would definitely have contradicted this prophesy.